5.easa.fi

Principles of Flight

1. What is shown by a profile polar?

• ratio between total lift and drag depending on angle of attack
• ratio between minimum rate of descent and best glide
• lift coefficient cA at different angles of attack
• ratio of cA and cD at different angles of attack

2. Why is it not allowed to launch with the C.G. positioned beyond the aft limit?

• Because increased nose-down moment may not be compensated
• Because maximum permissible speed will be reduced significantly
• Because structural limits may be exceeded
• Because elevator inputs may not be sufficient for controlling flight attitude

3. “Flutter” may occur in which speed range?

• At too low airspeeds (< Vs0)
• At too high airspeeds (> VNE)
• Within the yellow arc on the airspeed indicator
• At too low airspeeds (< Vs1)

4. Stabilization around the lateral axis during cruise is achieved by the…

• wing flaps.
• vertical rudder.
• airlerons.
• horizontal stabilizer.

5. The critical angle of attack…

• increases with a front centre of gravity.
• is changed by different aircraft weights.
• is not changed by different aircraft weights.
• decreases with a rear centre of gravity.

6. When changing the airflow speed (TAS, true airspeed) by a factor of 2, the parasite drag will…

• increase by a factor of 2.
• increase by a factor of 4.
• increase by a factor of approximately 1.4.
• will increase to a constant, maximum value.

7. Pressure compensation on a wing occurs at the…

• fuselage connections.
• leading edge.
• wing roots.
• wing tips.

8. Pressure drag, interference drag and friction drag belong to the group of the…

• main resistance.
• parasite drag.
• induced drag.
• total drag.

9. Flying slow close to stall conditions, the left wing is lower than the right wing. How can the stall be prevented?

• Aileron to the right, push slighty on the elevator, gain some speed, all rudders neutral
• Rudder left, push slighty on the elevator, gain some speed, all rudders neutral
• Aileron and rudder to the right, gain some speed, push slightly on the elevator, all rudders neutral
• Push on the elevator, keep wings level with coordinated inputs on rudder and aileron

10. What engine design at a Touring Motor Glider (TMG) results in least drag?

• Engine and propeller mounted fix at the aircraft’s nose
• Engine and propeller mounted stowable on the fuselage
• Engine and propeller mounted fix at the horizontal stabilizer
• Engine and propeller mounted fix on the fuselage.

11. What is the principle of a Fowler flap?

• The rear part of the wing is folded down
• A profile-like flap is extended from the trailing edge of the wing
• At high angles of attack a part of the leading edge lifts
• A flap from the rear bottom side of the wing is folded down

12. What is the advantage of differential aileron movement?

• The drag of the downwards deflected aileron is lowered and the adverse yaw is smaller
• The adverse yaw is higher
• The total lift remains constant during aileron deflection
• The ratio of the drag coefficient to lift coefficient is increased

13. What pattern can be found at the stagnation point?

• Streamlines are divided into airflow above and below the profile
• The boundary layer starts separating on the upper surface of the profile
• All aerodynamic forces can be considered as attacking at this single point
• The laminar boundary layer changes into a turbulent boundary layer

14. The bank in a two-minute turn (rate one turn) depends on the…

• load factor.
• wind.
• TAS.
• weight.

15. Pressure equalisation between lower and upper side of the wing can be reduced by…

• retracting flaps.
• higher airplane mass.
• reducing speed.
• winglets.

16. What is the purpose of winglets?

• Reduction of induced drag.
• Increase gliding performance at high speed.
• Increase of lift and turning manoeuvering capabilities.
• To increase efficiency of aspect ratio.

17. What structural item provides lateral stability to an airplane?

• Elevator
• Differential aileron deflection
• Vertical tail
• Wing dihedral

18. In which mentioned situation is the total drag at its minimum?

• Induced drag is smaller than parasite drag
• Parasite drag is twice as much as induced drag
• Induced drag is twice as much as parasite drag
• Parasite drag is equal to induced drag

19. What has to be considered with regard to the center of gravity position?

• The center of gravity’s position can only be determined during flight.
• By moving the elevator trim tab, the center of gravity can be shifted into a correct position.
• By moving the aileron trim tab, the center of gravity can be shifted into a correct position.
• Only correct loading can assure a correct and safe center of gravity position.

20. As means to prevent flutter…

• flaps should be retracted.
• airspeed should should be increased at first indication of flutter.
• the mass of the rudders should not be changed.
• uneven areas on the area should be filled with paint or spattle.

21. After an engine failure, the windmilling propeller…

• improves the properties of the glide.
• has a greater pitch in feathered position.
• generates neither thrust nor drag.
• generates drag rather than thrust.

22. The change in pitch at a propeller blade from the root to the tip ensures…

• the largest possible angle of attack at the blade tip.
• a nearly constant load by a constant effective angle of attack over the entire length of the blade.
• that the most thrust is produced at the blade tip.
• that the most thrust is produced at the blade root.

23. During cruise flight with constant power setting, an aircraft shows a permanent tendency to raise the nose. How can this tendency be eliminated?

• By deflecting the elevator trim tab upwards
• By shifting the center of gravity backwards
• By deflecting the elevator trim tab downwards
• By elevator deflection upwards

24. Which statement about lift and angle of attack is correct?

• Increasing the angle of attack results in less lift being generated by the aerofoil
• Decreasing the angle of attack results in more drag being generated by the aerofoil
• Too large angles of attack can lead to an exponential increase in lift
• Increasing the angle of attack too far may result in a loss of lift and an airflow separation

25. When increasing the angle of attack at cruise speed, the center of pressure will…

• be positioned at 25% mean aerodynamic chord.
• move backward.
• move forward.
• show no change in position.

26. Which parts of an aircraft mainly affect the generation of induced drag?

• the outer part of the ailerons.
• the front part of the fuselage.
• the wing tips.
• the lower part of the gear.

27. Friction drag will be increased for example by:

• Interfering airflow from fuselage and wings
• Dead insects and dirt at the leading edge
• A smoother surface
• Increased airflow between lower and upper wing

28. The position of the centre of pressure at a positively shaped profile…

• moves to the leading edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller.
• does not move since it is independent of the angle of attack.
• moves to the trailing edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller.
• is located at approximately 25% of the chord, measured from the leading edge.

29. The aerodynamic rudder balance…

• improves the rudder effectiveness.
• reduces the control stick forces.
• reduces the control surfaces.
• delays the stall.

30. What kind of drag is NOT part of the parasite drag?

• Induced drag
• Interference drag
• Form drag
• Skin-friction drag

31. If surrounded by airflow (v>0), any arbitrarily shaped body produces…

• drag and lift.
• constant drag at any speed.
• drag.
• lift without drag.

32. The ‘boundary layer’ of a body in an airflow can be described as:

• a thin layer with flow speeds ranging from twice the free airflow speed body’s surface to free airflow speed at some distance
• an area of compressed air near the leading edge of a wing.
• a thin layer with flow speeds ranging from zero at the body’s surface to free airflow speed at some distance
• a layer behind the separation point with undefined air flow speeds.

33. How should the pilot react to an engaged stall warning?

• Pull the elevator, decrease power
• Pull the elevator, increase power
• Raise the nose to decrease airspeed
• Push the elevator, increase power

34. During a stall, the lift…

• increases and drag decreases.
• increases and drag increases.
• decreases and drag decreases.
• decreases and drag increases.

35. Which statement regarding a spin is correct?

• During recovery the ailerons should be crossed
• Only very old aeroplanes have a risk of spinning
• During the spin the speed constantly increases
• During recovery the ailerons should be kept neutral

36. “Longitudinal stability” is referred to as stability around which axis?

• Propeller axis
• Lateral axis
• Vertical axis
• Longitudinal axis

37. See figure (AGK-011). The angle indicated by arrow number 1 shows the propeller’s…

• geometric wing twist.
• aerodynamic wing twist.
• angle of incidence.
• angle of attack.

38. The laminar boundary layer on the aerofoil is located between…

• the transition point and the center of pressure.
• the stagnation point and the transition point.
• the transition point and the separation point.
• the stagnation point and the center of pressure.

39. Wing tip vortex development begins during which phase of flight?

• As soon as the aircraft starts moving
• While setting take-off power during take-off run
• When lift is being generated during rotation
• While setting flaps to lower position

40. What pressure pattern can be observed at a lift-generating wing profile at positive angle of attack?

• High pressure is created above, lower pressure below the profile
• Pressure below remains unchanged, lower pressure is created above the profile
• Pressure above remains unchanged, higher pressure is created below the profile
• Low pressure is created above, higher pressure below the profile

41. Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 1? (See figure PFA-009)

• Transition point
• Center of pressure
• Separation point
• Stagnation point

42. Stability around which axis is mainly influenced by the center of gravity’s longitudinal position?

• Gravity axis
• Longitudinal axis
• Vertical axis
• Lateral axis

43. Which statement about induced drag during the horizontal cruise flight is correct?

• Induced drag has a minimum at a certain speed and increases at higher as well as lower speeds
• Induced drag has a maximum at a certain speed and decreases at higher as well as lower speeds
• Induced drag decreases with increasing airspeed
• Induced drag increases with increasing airspeed

44. The center of pressure is the theoretical point of origin of…

• all aerodynamic forces of the profile.
• gravity and aerodynamic forces.
• gravity forces of the profile.
• only the resulting total drag.

45. With regard to flaps, which of the following options provides a lift-increasing effect?

• Increasing the aerofoil camber
• Decreasing the angle of attack
• Decreasing the form drag
• Lowering the induced drag

46. How do lift and drag change when approaching a stall condition?

• Lift increases and drag decreases
• Lift decreases and drag increases
• Lift and drag increase
• Lift and drag decrease

47. What leads to a decreased stall speed Vs (IAS)?

• Higher load factor
• Decreasing weight
• Lower altitude
• Lower density

48. In straight and level flight with constant performance of the engine, the angle of attack at the wing is…

• smaller than in a descent.
• smaller than in a climb.
• greater than in a climb.
• greater than at take-off.

49. Number 2 in the drawing corresponds to the… (See figure PFA-010)

• chord.
• profile thickness.
• angle of attack.
• chord line.

50. How do induced drag and parasite drag change with increasing airspeed during a horizontal and stable cruise flight?

• Parasite drag decreases and induced drag increases
• Parasite drag decreases and induced drag decreases
• Induced drag increases and parasite drag increases
• Induced drag decreases and parasite drag increases

51. What effects typically result from propeller icing?

• Reduced power output, increasing RPM.
• Reduced power output, decreasing RPM.
• Increased power output, decreasing RPM.
• Increased power output, increasing RPM.

52. Considering a normal profile during cruise, a laminar boundary layer can be expected…

• in the rear section of the profile behind the separation point.
• in the rear section of the profile ahead of the separation point.
• in the forward section of the profile.
• in the frictionless section of the profile.

53. Which constructive feature is shown in the figure? (See figure PFA-006)

• Differential aileron deflection
• Directional stability by lift generation
• Longitudinal stability by wing dihedral
• Lateral stability by wing dihedral

54. What can be said about the load factor (n) and the stall speed (Vs) in a co-ordinated turn?

• n is lower than 1, Vs is higher than in straight and level flight.
• n is lower than 1, Vs is lower than in straight and level flight.
• n is larger than 1, Vs is higher than in straight and level flight.
• n is larger than 1, Vs is lower than in straight and level flight.

55. Which option states a benefit of wing washout?

• Structurally the wing is made more rigid against rotation
• Greater hardness because the wing can withstand more torsion forces
• With the washout the form drag reduces at high speeds
• At high angles of attack the effectiveness of the aileron is retained as long as possible

56. When increasing the airflow speed by a factor of 2 while keeping all other parameters constant, how does the parasite drag change approximately?

• It increases by a factor of 2
• It decreases by a factor of 4
• It decreases by a factor of 2
• It increases by a factor of 4

57. Compared to trailing edge flaps, leading edge devices like slots…

• increase the camber and allow a lower angle of attack.
• reduce the critical angle of attack at a given speed.
• allow higher speeds at take-off and landing.
• produce less drag while allowing a higher angle of attack.

58. The term ‘flutter’ refers to…

• the separation of airflow at too high angles of attack.
• vibration and oscillation of the ailerons at too low airspeeds.
• a stabilizing effect when at speeds higher than VNE.
• vibration and oscillation of the ailerons at too high airspeeds.

59. During a descent at idle power with constant speed, the propeller lever is moved backwards. How do the propeller pitch and sink rate change?

• Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is decreased
• Propeller pitch is decreased, sink rate is decreased
• Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is increased
• Propeller pitch is decreased, sink rate is increased

60. Which statement regarding the “constant-speed propeller” is correct?

• The RPM decreases with lower speeds
• The set RPM is kept constant by the motor power (MAP)
• The pitch of the propeller rises with higher speeds
• The propeller keeps the airspeed constant

61. Following a single-wing stall and pitch-down moment, how can a spin be prevented?

• Deflect all rudders opposite to lower wing
• Pulling the elevator to bring the plane back to normal attitude
• Rudder opposite lower wing, releasing elevator to build up speed
• Pushing the elevator to build up speed to re-attach airflow on wings

62. What has to be expected with ice accretion on wings?

• Reduced friction drag
• An increased stall speed
• Improved slow flight capabilities
• A decreased stall speed

63. The angle (alpha) shown in the figure is referred to as… (See figure PFA-003)

• angle of incidence.
• lift angle.
• angle of inclination.
• angle of attack.

64. Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 3? (See figure PFA-009)

• Separation point
• Transition point
• Center of pressure
• Stagnation point

65. A gliding plane is about to pitch down due to stall. What rudder input can prevent nose-dive and spin?

• Slightly pull the elevator, ailerons opposite to lower wing
• Keep airplane in level flight using rudder pedals
• Release elevator, rudder opposite to lower wing
• Ailerons neutral, rudder strongly kicked to lower wing

66. What describes “wing loading”?

• Drag per weight
• Wing area per weight
• Drag per wing area
• Weight per wing area

67. The elevator moves an aeroplane around the…

• longitudinal axis.
• vertical axis.
• elevator axis.
• lateral axis.

68. How is the balance of forces affected during a turn?

• The horizontal component of the lift force during a turn is the centrifugal force
• The net force results from superposition of gravity and centripetal forces
• A lower lift force compensates for a lower net force as compared to level flight
• Lift force must be increased to compensate for the sum of centrifugal and gravitational force

69. What is meant by “ground effect”?

• Decrease of lift and decrease of induced drag close to the ground
• Increase of lift and increase of induced drag close to the ground
• Decrease of lift and increase of induced drag close to the ground
• Increase of lift and decrease of induced drag close to the ground

70. In motorplanes the stall warning is usually activated by a change of…

• the transition point.
• the stagnation point.
• the center of pressure.
• the center of gravity.

71. Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack decreases?

• The stagnation point remains constant
• The stagnation point moves down
• The center of pressure moves aft
• The center of pressure moves forward

72. Considering longitudinal stability, which C.G. position is most dangerous with a normal gliding plane?

• Position far back within permissible C.G. limits
• Position too far aside permissible C.G. limits.
• Position beyond the rear C.G. limit
• Position beyond the front C.G. limit

73. The ratio of span and mean chord length is referred to as…

• aspect ratio.
• trapezium shape.
• tapering.
• wing sweep.

74. How does a laminar boundary layer differ from a turbulent boundary layer?

• The laminar boundary layer is thinner and provides more skin-friction drag
• The turbulent boundary layer is thicker and provides less skin-friction drag
• The turbulent boundary layer can follow the airfoil camber at higher angles of attack
• The laminar boundary layer produces lift, the turbulent boundary layer produces drag

75. Which kinds of drag contribute to total drag?

• Form drag, skin-friction drag, interference drag
• Induced drag, form drag, skin-friction drag
• Interference drag and parasite drag
• Induced drag and parasite drag

76. The static pressure of gases works…

• in all directions.
• only vertical to the flow direction.
• only in the direction of the total pressure.
• only in flow direction.

77. What is the function of the horizontal tail (among other things)?

• To stabilise the aeroplane around the vertical axis
• To stabilise the aeroplane around the longitudinal axis
• To initiate a curve around the vertical axis
• To stabilise the aeroplane around the lateral axis

78. Through which factor listed below does the load factor increase during cruise flight?

• Lower air density
• An upward gust
• A forward centre of gravity
• Higher aeroplane weight

79. Number 3 in the drawing corresponds to the… (See figure PFA-010)

• camber line.
• chord.
• chord line.
• thickness.

80. What is the difference between spin and spiral dive?

• Spin: stall at inner wing, speed constant; Spiral dive: airflow at both wings, speed increasing rapidly
• Spin: stall at inner wing, speed increasing rapidly; Spiral dive: airflow at both wings, speed constant
• Spin: stall at outer wing, speed increasing rapidly; Spiral dive: airflow at both wings, speed constant
• Spin: stall at outer wing, speed constant; Spiral dive: airflow at both wings, speed increasing rapidly

81. What is the effect in general when using a thicker airfoil compared to a thinner airfoil on stationary glide with the same airplane mass?

• Steady speed with less lift
• Higher speed with less lift
• Less speed with more lift
• Lower speed with steady lift

82. The pressure compensation between wing upper and lower surface results in…

• laminar airflow by wing tip vortices.
• profile drag by wing tip vortices.
• induced drag by wing tip vortices.
• lift by wing tip vortices.

83. A take-off with flaps in take-off position causes…

• an increased acceleration.
• an increased rate of climb.
• a shortening of the take-off run.
• a decrease in drag.

84. In which way does the position of the center of pressure move at a positively shaped profile with increasing angle of attack?

• It moves to the wing tips
• It moves forward until reaching the critical angle of attack
• It moves forward first, then backward
• It moves backward until reaching the critical angle of attack

85. During a straight and steady climb, which force acts additionally, and in the same direction as the drag force, resulting in more power required for climb than for horizontal flight?

• The vertical component of the weight force.
• A component of the thrust along the rearward flightpath.
• A component of the weight force along the rearward flight path.
• A component of the lift force along the forward flightpath.

86. Bernoulli’s equation for frictionless, incompressible gases states that…

• total pressure = dynamic pressure - static pressure.
• total pressure = dynamic pressure + static pressure.
• dynamic pressure = total pressure + static pressure.
• static pressure = total pressure + dynamic pressure.

87. A sailplane is operated with additional water ballast. How do best gliding angle and speed of best glide change, when compared to flying without water ballast?

• best gliding angle descreases, best glide speed decreases.
• best gliding angle remains unchanged, best glide speed decreases.
• best gliding angle remains increases, best glide speed increases.
• best gliding angle remains unchanged, best glide speed increases.

88. Which design feature can compensate for adverse yaw?

• Differential aileron deflection
• Wing dihedral
• Aileron trim
• Full deflection of the aileron

89. The right aileron deflects upwards, the left downwards. How does the aircraft react?

• Rolling to the left, no yawing
• Rolling to the left, yawing to the right
• Rolling to the right, yawing to the left
• Rolling to the right, yawing to the right

90. Trim masses or lead plates must be secured firmly when installed into a gliding plane, so that…

• the glider pilot will not be hurt during flight in thermal turbulences.
• the maximum allowed mass will not be exceeded.
• they will not block rudders or induce any C.G. shift.
• a comfortable seat position will be assured for the glider pilot.

91. All aerodynamic forces can be considered to act on a single point. This point is called…

• center of gravity.
• center of pressure.
• lift point.
• transition point.

92. What effect is referred to as “adverse yaw”?

• Rudder operation results in a rolling moment to the opposite side due to more lift generated by the faster moving wing.
• Aileron operation results in a yaw to the opposite side due to more drag at the down-deflected aileron
• Aileron operation results in a yaw to the opposite side due to more drag at the up-deflected aileron
• Aileron operation results in a yaw to the desired side due to less drag at the down-deflected aileron

93. Which effect does a decreasing airspeed have on the induced drag during a horizontal and stable cruise flight?

• The induced drag will remain constant
• The induced drag will collapse
• The induced drag will increase
• The induced drag will slightly decrease

94. Which constructive feature has the purpose to reduce steering forces?

• T-tail
• Differential aileron deflection
• Aerodynamic rudder balance
• Vortex generators

95. The trim tab at the elevator is deflected upwards. In which position is the corresponding indicator?

• Laterally trimmed
• Nose-down position
• Neutral position
• Nose-up position

96. In order to improve the stall characteristics of an aircraft, the wing is twisted outwards (the angle of incidence varies spanwise). This is known as…

• arrow shape.
• V-form.
• aerodynamic washout.
• geometric washout.

97. The elevator deflection during take-off rotation…

• is increased at high speeds.
• is independent of the speed.
• is increased for a front centre of gravity.
• is increased for a rear centre of gravity.

98. Deflecting the rudder to the left causes…

• pitching of the aircraft to the right.
• pitching of the aircraft to the left.
• yawing of the aircraft to the right.
• yawing of the aircraft to the left.

99. Which of the listed wing shapes has the lowest induced drag?

• Double trapezoidal shape
• Trapezoidal shape
• Rectangular shape
• Elliptical shape

100. What structural item provides directional stability to an airplane?

• Large elevator
• Wing dihedral
• Differential aileron deflection
• Large vertical tail

101. Which constructive feature has the purpose to reduce stearing forces?

• Differential aileron deflection
• Aerodynamic rudder balance
• T-tail
• Vortex generators

102. What is indicated by “buffeting” noticable at elevator stick?

• C.G. position too far ahead
• too fast, turbulence bubbles hitting on aileron
• too slow, wing airflow stalled
• Glider plane very dirty

103. With regard to the forces acting, how can stationary gliding be described?

• The sum the air forces acts along with the lift force
• The sum of air forces acts along the direction of air flow
• The sum of air forces compensates the gravity force
• The lift force compensates the drag force

104. What is the function of the static rudder balance?

• To prevent control surface flutter
• To limit the control stick forces
• To increase the control stick forces
• To trim the controls almost without any force

105. What types of boundary layers can be found on an aerofoil?

• Turbulent boundary layer along the complete upper surface with separated airflow
• Turbulent layer at the leading wing areas, laminar boundary layer at the trailing areas
• Laminar layer at the leading wing areas, turbulent boundary layer at the trailing areas
• Laminar boundary layer along the complete upper surface with non-separated airflow

106. The static pressure of gases work…

• in all directions
• only in flow direction.
• only in the direction of the total pressure.
• only vertical to the flow direction.

107. When air flows through a pipe with changing cross sections, the static pressure changes. The total pressure…

• increases proportionally.
• reduces proportionally.
• does not change
• changes proportionally.

108. The “angle of attack” is the angle between…

• the aircraft’s longitudinal axis and the relative airflow.
• the aircraft’s longitudinal axis and the chord line.
• the chord line and the relative airflow
• the chord line of the elevator and the chord line of the wing.

109. Which answer describes the term “aerodynamic force”?

• Component of the lifting force in airflow direction
• Sum of the vectors of lift and weight force
• Sum of the vectors of lift and drag force
• Difference of the vectors of lift and weight force

110. “Profile depth” is the distance between the…

• leading edge and trailing edge of a profile
• wing root and the wing tip.
• profile’s lower and upper edge at the thickest point.
• profile’s lower and upper edge at the thinnest point.

111. The illustrated profile is a / an…

• normal profile.
• symmetrical profile
• laminar profile.
• S-profile.

112. Which wing shape has the highest induced drag?

• Rectangular wing
• Trapeze-shaped wing
• Ellipsoidal wing
• Triangular-shaped wing

113. When the rigging angle of incidence of a wing is smaller on the outer side than on the inner (on the root), that is called…

• geometric twist
• V-shape.
• aerodynamic twist.
• aerodynamic torsion.

114. The start of vortex development is created during which phase of flight?

• While setting take-off power during take-off run
• While setting flaps to lower position
• As soon as the aircraft starts moving
• When lift is being generated during rotation

115. What occurs at the “transition point”?

• The change from turbulent to laminar airflow
• The change from laminar to turbulent airflow
• The lateral tilting of the aircraft with stall
• Reaching the maximum lift coefficient

116. Which of the following options describes the pressure pattern at a lift-generating wing profile passed by airflow?

• Pressure below remains unchanged, lower pressure is created above the profile
• High pressure is created above, lower pressure below the profile
• Low pressure is created above, higher pressure below the profile
• Pressure above remains unchanged, higher pressure is created below the profile

117. The position of the center of pressure at a positively shaped profile…

• moves to the trailing edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller.
• does not move since it is independent of the angle of attack.
• moves to the leading edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller
• is located at approximately 25% of the chord, measured from the leading edge.

118. A symmetrical profile…

• does not produce lift.
• has the least induced drag with a positive attack angle.
• has a non-moving center of pressure
• can only be flown upside-down.

119. The lift on an airfoil can be directly changed during flight…

• by changing the angle of incidence.
• by changing the angle of attack
• by changing the trim.
• under no circumstances.

120. Which option states a benefit of aerodynamic washout?

• At high angles of attack the effectiveness of the aileron is retained as long as possible
• Structurally the wing is made more rigid against rotation
• Greater hardness because the wing can withstand more torsion forces
• With the washout the form drag reduces at high speeds

121. Where does “separation” on the aerofoil set in and in which direction does it move with increasing angle of attack?

• On the leading edge of the profile, movement in airflow direction
• On the entire upper side of the profile at the same time
• At the profile’s upper side at the trailing edge, movement opposite to the airflow direction
• On the profile’s lower side behind the transition point, movement in airflow direction

122. Which statement concerning the angle of attack is correct?

• Increasing the angle of attack results in decreasing lift
• The angle of attack cannot be negative
• The angle of attack is constant throughout the flight
• A too large angle of attack may result in a loss of lift

123. How do lift and drag change with decreasing air density (all other parameters remaining constant)?

• They do not change
• Lift will increase, drag will decrease
• Lift and drag will decrease
• Lift will decrease, drag will increase

124. Lift depends on…

• lift coefficient, speed, air temperature, projected airfoil area.
• lift coefficient, square of the speed, air density, projected airfoil area
• flight weight force, speed, air density, projected airfoil area.
• flight weight force, engine power, air density, projected airfoil area.

125. The drag coefficient…

• cannot be lower than a non-negative, minimal value
• may range from zero to an infinite positive value.
• increases with increasing airspeed.
• is proportional to the lift coefficient.

126. Which of the following answers characterises a thick profile compared to a thin profile at the same speed? The thick profile generates…

• more drag and less lift.
• more drag and more lift
• more drag and equal lift.
• equal drag and more lift.

127. How does the drag of the aircraft change when the speed is doubled? It…

• doubles.
• remains the same.
• quadruples
• Triples

128. Pressure compensation on an aerofoil occurs at the…

• leading edge.
• wing tips.
• trailing edge
• wing roots.

129. Which of the following options is likely to produce large induced drag?

• Large aspect ratio
• Tapered wings
• Small aspect ratio
• Low lift coefficients

130. Induced drag is generated…

• at the outer part of the ailerons.
• at the trailing edge of the wing
• at the front part of the aisle.
• at the lower part of the gear.

131. Where is interference drag generated?

• At the ailerons
• At the gear
• Near the wing tips
• At the wing root

132. Which body of the same cross-sectional area has the smallest drag with the same inflowing air speed?

• Plain disc
• Streamlined body
• Hollow hemisphere
• Sphere

133. A strong decrease of lift can suddenly occur…

• when getting close to the stall speed
• when the flaps are extended.
• when the engine power is reduced.
• when the propeller is set to low RPM / large pitch.

134. The stall warning will be activated just before reaching which speed?

• VNE
• VS
• VR
• VX

135. With increasing wing load, the minimum flight speed…

• decreases.
• increases
• remains constant.
• is dependent only on the flap position.

136. The “twist” of the aerofoil causes…

• the airflow on the outer wing to stall sooner at high angles of attack and the induced drag to decrease.
• the airflow on the inner wing to stall sooner at high angles of attack and the induced drag to decrease.
• the airflow to stall later in the area of the aileron and the induced drag to increase
• the airflow to stall sooner in the area of the aileron and the induced drag to decrease.

137. How do lift and drag change when setting flaps to a lower position?

• Lift increases, drag increases
• Lift increases, drag decreases
• Lift decreases, drag increases
• Lift decreases, drag decreases

138. What kind of landing aids may not be retracted suddenly near the ground?

• Spoilers
• Airbrakes
• Flaps
• Schempp-Hirth flaps

139. Which effect (among others) causes lift to increase when extending the landing flaps?

• Reduction of the form drag
• Enlargement of the profile camber
• Reduction of the angle of attack
• Reduction of the induced drag

140. How does extending the flaps to landing position affect the final approach (engine idle)?

• Minimum speed is smaller, the glide path remains the same
• Minimum speed is greater, the glide path remains the same
• Minimum speed remains the same, the glide path is steeper
• Minimum speed is smaller, the glide path is steeper

141. When taking off with the flaps extended (take-off position)…

• the climb rate increases.
• the rotation speed increases.
• the take-off ground roll is shortened
• the acceleration increases.

142. The laminar layer on the aerofoil is located between…

• the transition point and the separation point.
• the stagnation point and the transition point
• the stagnation point and the center of pressure.
• the transition point and the center of pressure.

143. Which answer explains the term “boundary layer”?

• The turbulences which arise with the combination of different assemblies of the aircraft
• The layer in which the airflow speed increases from zero up to full speed of the airflow
• The circulating part of the airfoil-fuselage flows
• The air molecules which are subject to turbulence after the transition point

144. The laminar boundary layer is situated between…

• transition point and trim edge.
• transition point and separation point.
• stagnation point and pressure point.
• stagnation point and transition point

145. In icing conditions, at which point will the most ice arise on an aeroplane?

• On the upper and lower side of the control surfaces
• On the pitot tube and the static pressure ports
• On the upper und lower side of the wing’s trailing edge
• On all frontal areas of the airframe, the wings, and the tail

146. Which statement describes a situation of static stability?

• An aircraft distorted by external impact will maintain the deflected position
• An aircraft distorted by external impact will return to the original position
• An aircraft distorted by external impact will tend to an even more deflected position
• An aircraft distorted by external impact can return to its original position by rudder input

147. Which force does NOT act during straight and level flight?

• Lift force
• Centrifugal force
• Gravitational force
• Drag force

148. Stability around the lateral axis (longitudinal stability) is achieved by…

• the effects and construction of the elevator unit
• the use of a V-tail.
• a variable rigging angle of incidence of the wing.
• a swept back wing.

149. Stability of the vertical axis can be achieved…

• by the vertical stabilizer only.
• only by the rudder.
• by the pendulum effect of the fuselage and wing dihedral.
• by the vertical tail and the fuselage shape

150. Which constructive feature provides longitudinal stability to an airplane in normal configuration (empennage at tail)?

• Differential aileron deflection
• Downforce at the elevator
• Positive wing dihedral
• Trim plate at the tailfin

151. What is the purpose of the horizontal stabiliser?

• Commencing turns around the vertical axis
• Stabilising the aircraft around the longitudinal axis
• Stabilising the aircraft around the vertical axis
• Stabilising the aircraft around the lateral axis

152. Stability around which axis is strongly influenced by the center of gravity’s position?

• Longitudinal axis
• Vertical axis
• Gravity axis
• Lateral axis

153. Rotation around the vertical axis is called…

• yawing
• slipping.
• rolling.
• pitching.

154. The movement around the vertical axis of the aircraft is called…

• rolling.
• pitching.
• yawing
• slipping.

155. The elevator deflection for a specific maneuver…

• is increased with a front centre of gravity
• is increased at high speeds.
• is increased with a rear centre of gravity.
• is independent of the speed.

156. How can a pilot maintain the altitude during a co-ordinated steep turn?

• The rudder is operated into the opposite direction
• The rudder is operated in the rotating direction
• The elevator is pulled accordingly
• The trim is set to nose-heavy

157. The adverse-yaw effect can occur…

• during steep turns with more than 45° bank angle.
• with rudder deflection.
• on the elevator at every speed range.
• with aileron deflection during slow-flight conditions

158. Which control affects primarily the movement around the longitudinal axis?

• Rudder
• Aileron
• Elevator
• Trim

159. Differential aileron deflection is used to…

• reduce wake turbulence.
• avoid a stall at low angles of attack.
• keep the adverse yaw low
• increase the rate of descent.

160. Which answer describes the term “adverse yaw momentum”?

• A yawing momentum in the same direction as the rolling momentum
• A yawing momentum opposite to the direction of the rolling momentum
• A rotation momentum around the longitudinal axis opposite to the aileron deflection
• A rolling momentum additional to the rudder deflection

161. What is a bendable trim tab?

• A balance mass at a control surface
• A term for a rudder balance
• A trim device adjustable in flight
• A fixed tab attached to the rudder or the aileron

162. The trim tab at the elevator is defelected upwards. In which position is the corresponding indicator?

• Neutral position
• Laterally trimmed
• Nose-up position
• Nose-down position

163. The maximum permissible speed for an aircraft…

• is compulsory for aerobatics.
• cannot be achieved by a vertical nose down diving flight.
• must never be exceeded
• should only be exceeded in still air.

164. Which answer describes the “manoeuvring speed”?

• Maximum speed with which abrupt, full control deflection
• Maximum speed for steep turns
• Minimum speed for steep turns
• Initial speed for aerobatic figures

165. Through which factor listed below does the load factor decrease during cruise flight?

• A downward gust
• An aft centre of gravity
• Higher air density
• Lower aeroplane weight

166. How is the spin influenced when power is added during a left spin with a clockwise spinning engine?

• It is enforced
• It is not influenced at all
• It is strongly decreased
• It decreases minimally

167. Which answer defines the term “wing load”?

• Maximum mass an aircraft can carry
• Maximum take-off mass
• Mass of the aircraft per wing surface area
• Mass of the air which the aircraft displaces

168. After increasing the angle of attack during flight with best gliding speed, initially…

• lift and drag increase
• lift and drag decrease.
• lift decreases and drag increases.
• lift increases and drag decreases.

169. The spin tendency of an aircraft is greater…

• with a forward center of gravity position.
• when trim is “nose-heavy”.
• with an aft center of gravity position
• when trim is “tail-heavy”.